A 28-year-old presents to the emergency department with a painless chancre. The physician suspects that the patient has acquired a sexually transmitted Infection (STI). Which pathogen would be first on your differential?

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BlackTom AI · Accepted Answer

In this clinical vignette, a painless chancre is described, which is classically associated with primary syphilis. 
Option 1: Chlamydia trachomatis. While Chlamydia can cause genital infections and other syndromes, it does not typically present as a painless chancre; this choice reflects a common STI but not the classic primary lesion described. 
Option 2: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This pathogen causes pulmonary tuberculosis and extrapulmonary forms, but it is not linked to sexually transmitted genital ulcers or painless chancres. This option misattributes an entirely different disease spectrum to the presentation. 
Option 3: Schistosoma mansoni. A helminth causing schistosomiasis with symptoms like hematuria or intestinal complaints, not a painless genital chancre; this is unrelated to the STI scenario described. 
Option 4: Treponema pallidum. This spirochete is the etiologic agent of syphilis, and a painless penile or genital ulcer (chancre) is the hallmark of primary syphilis, making it the most likely first-differential pathogen in this setting. 
Overall, distinguishing between these options hinges on recognizing the classic primary lesion of syphilis and understanding that the other organisms are associated with different diseases or presentations, not the painless chancre described here.

A 28-year-old presents to the emergency department with a painless chancre. The physician suspects that the patient has acquired a sexually transmitted Infection (STI). Which pathogen would be first on your differential?

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