题目
NEUR20001_2025_SM2 Assessment for Workshop 9 - neural plasticity and glia
单项选择题
Which statement best describes spike-timing–dependent plasticity (STDP) and its primary cellular mechanism?
选项
A.STDP depends only on presynaptic firing rate — the precise timing relative to the postsynaptic spike is irrelevant.
B.When a postsynaptic spike precedes a presynaptic spike, LTP is induced due to back-propagating action potentials inserting AMPA receptors.
C.If a presynaptic spike precedes a postsynaptic spike by a few–tens of milliseconds, the synapse undergoes LTP (via large NMDA-receptor–dependent Ca²⁺ influx and kinase activation); if the order is reversed (post before pre) within a similar window, the synapse undergoes LTD (via smaller Ca²⁺ signals and phosphatase activation).
D.Any two spikes that occur within ~100 ms always produce potentiation, regardless of order, because temporal proximity alone strengthens synapses.
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标准答案
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思路分析
The question asks about spike-timing–dependent plasticity (STDP) and its primary cellular mechanism, so we should evaluate what each option claims about timing rules and the intracellular signaling that follows.
Option 1 states that STDP depends only on presynaptic firing rate and that precise timing relative to the postsynaptic spike is irrelevant. This is inaccurate because STDP is defined by the relative timing between presynaptic and postsynaptic spikes, with the direction and magnitude of synaptic change strongly dependent on whether the presynaptic event precedes or follows the postsy......Login to view full explanation登录即可查看完整答案
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