题目
单项选择题
A 55-year-old woman recently underwent a PET/CT scan that showed highfludeoxyglucose (¹⁸F-FDG) uptake in the right lung, suggesting possible malignancy. However, her blood-based liquid biopsy revealed no circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA) mutations associated with lung cancer. The oncologist is considering next-generation sequencing (NGS) for further analysis. Which of the following best explains this discordant finding and justifies the oncologist’s next step?
选项
A.a) The absence of ctDNA mutations confirms there is no tumor, so no further testing is needed.
B.b) PET scans directly detect gene mutations through radioactive tracers, so NGS would be redundant.
C.c) PET scans measure glucose metabolism, so high uptake may reflect inflammation or infection rather than malignancy; NGS can confirm if tumor-specific mutations exist.
D.d) Liquid biopsies are always more accurate than imaging; repeating the PET scan would provide genetic confirmation.
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思路分析
The question presents a scenario where imaging (PET/CT) suggests possible malignancy due to high 18F-FDG uptake, yet a blood-based liquid biopsy shows no ctDNA mutations associated with lung cancer. The task is to evaluate each option and explain why the correct choice explains the discordance and justifies next steps, while the other choices are flawed.
Option a: The absence of ctDNA mutations confirms there is no tumor, so no further testing is neede......Login to view full explanation登录即可查看完整答案
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