题目
题目

BU.232.710.W2.SP25 Final: Part 2- Requires Respondus LockDown Browser

多重下拉选择题

The current price of a share of Apple is $185. The continuously compounded risk-free interest rate is 5%. The discounted value today of the forward price for delivery of a share of Apple in 6 months is $185.  Apple is expected to pay a dividend at 3 months. The discounted value of the dividend today is $10. (i) Are there any any arbitrage opportunities? [ Select ] no yes (ii)  If there is an arbitrage opportunity, please construct a portfolio such that you have a strictly positive cash flow today and a cash flow of 0 in 3 and 6 months.  Forward position (choose short/long/NA): [ Select ] short long NA PV(Forward) position in risk-free asset for repayment in 6 months (choose borrow/lend/NA): [ Select ] NA lend borrow Stock position (choose short/long/NA): [ Select ] short long NA PV(Dividend) position in risk-free asset for repayment in 3 months (choose borrow/lend/NA): [ Select ] NA borrow lend (iii) Now assume apple is expected to pay no dividends in the next 6 months. Is there still an arbitrage opportunity? [ Select ] yes no  

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思路分析
The provided item consists of a complex multi-part finance question with several decision points (arbitrage existence, portfolio construction, and a no-dividend scenario), but the given data for the multiple-choice selections is incomplete: there are no explicit answer options listed for the selections, and the "answer" field is null with an empty set of answer_options. Because of this, I cannot definitively label any option as correct or incorrect. Instead, I will walk through the relevant reasoning and the standards you would apply to each part if the answer choices were present, so you can map the logic to the actual options once they are available. Part (i): Are there any arbitrage opportunities? - Start by understanding the forward price relationship with today’s stock price, the risk-free rate, and any known dividends. In a standard no-arbitrage framework, the forward price F0,T is related to the spot price S0, the risk-free rate r (continuously compounded), and the present value of known dividends PV(D) by F0,T = (S0 - PV(D)) e^{rT}, where PV(D) is the sum of the present values of known cash dividends paid before or at the delivery date. - The given data provide: S0 = 185, the continuously compounded risk-fr......Login to view full explanation

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