Questions
Questions

NEUR20001_2025_SM2 Assessment for Workshop 9 - neural plasticity and glia

Single choice

Which statement best describes spike-timing–dependent plasticity (STDP) and its primary cellular mechanism?

Options
A.STDP depends only on presynaptic firing rate — the precise timing relative to the postsynaptic spike is irrelevant.
B.When a postsynaptic spike precedes a presynaptic spike, LTP is induced due to back-propagating action potentials inserting AMPA receptors.
C.If a presynaptic spike precedes a postsynaptic spike by a few–tens of milliseconds, the synapse undergoes LTP (via large NMDA-receptor–dependent Ca²⁺ influx and kinase activation); if the order is reversed (post before pre) within a similar window, the synapse undergoes LTD (via smaller Ca²⁺ signals and phosphatase activation).
D.Any two spikes that occur within ~100 ms always produce potentiation, regardless of order, because temporal proximity alone strengthens synapses.
View Explanation

View Explanation

Verified Answer
Please login to view
Step-by-Step Analysis
The question asks about spike-timing–dependent plasticity (STDP) and its primary cellular mechanism, so we should evaluate what each option claims about timing rules and the intracellular signaling that follows. Option 1 states that STDP depends only on presynaptic firing rate and that precise timing relative to the postsynaptic spike is irrelevant. This is inaccurate because STDP is defined by the relative timing between presynaptic and postsynaptic spikes, with the direction and magnitude of synaptic change strongly dependent on whether the presynaptic event precedes or follows the postsy......Login to view full explanation

Log in for full answers

We've collected over 50,000 authentic exam questions and detailed explanations from around the globe. Log in now and get instant access to the answers!

More Practical Tools for Students Powered by AI Study Helper

Join us and instantly unlock extensive past papers & exclusive solutions to get a head start on your studies!