Which among the following statements is the strongest that is true?A If a function is defined for all x and has a Maclaurin series, then this Maclaurin series converges for all x.B If a function is defined for all x and has a Maclaurin series, then this Maclaurin series is equal to the function for all x.C If a function is defined for all x and has a Maclaurin series, then this Maclaurin series is equal to the function for infinitely many values of $x$D If a function is defined for all x and has a Maclaurin series, then this Maclaurin series is equal to the function at $x=0$.

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BlackTom AI · Accepted Answer

Let’s parse the question first: we’re comparing statements about a function f defined for all real x that has a Maclaurin series. The Maclaurin series is the power series obtained by expanding f around x = 0, i.e., f(x) = sum_{n=0}^∞ f^{(n)}(0)/n! * x^n in its radius of convergence. Now evaluate each option in turn.

Option A: 'If a function is defined for all x and has a Maclaurin series, then this Maclaurin series converges for all x.' This is not necessarily true. A Maclaurin series may have a finite radius of convergence, determined by the nearest singularity of f in the complex plane (the radius could be finite). Therefore, saying it converges for all x is overly strong and incorrect in general.

Option B: 'If a function is defined for all x and has a Maclaurin series, then this Maclaurin series is equal to the function for all x.' This is also false in general because equality only holds within the interval (or disk in the complex plane) of convergence, and even there one requires that the function be analytic and equal to its Maclaurin series on that domain. Even when the series converges for some x, it does not guarantee equality at every x, especially outside the radius of convergence or when the function is not analytic there.

Option C: 'If a function is defined for all x and has a Maclaurin series, then this Maclaurin series is equal to the function for infinitely many values of x.' While the Maclaurin series represents the function near 0, equality is not guaranteed for infinitely many x in general. Equality at x = 0 is guaranteed, and by analytic continuation, equality can hold on an interval around 0 if f is analytic there, but in general you cannot claim equality for infinitely many x without more conditions. Without those conditions, this statement is too weak and not universally true as a blanket claim.

Option D: 'If a function is defined for all x and has a Maclaurin series, then this Maclaurin series is equal to the function at x = 0.' This aligns with the very definition of the Maclaurin series: the constant term is f(0), so the series value at x = 0 equals f(0). In other words, substituting x = 0 collapses all higher-order terms to zero and leaves f(0), ensuring equality at that single point. This is a universally true statement given the standard construction of the Maclaurin series.

In summary, each option tests different aspects of convergence and equality properties of a Maclaurin (Taylor) series. The critical, universally guaranteed fact among them is the value at x = 0, where the series reproduces f(0) exactly, since all terms beyond the zeroth vanish when x = 0.

MTH1030 -1035 - S1 2025 MTH1030/35 Week 9 lesson quiz: Representing functions by infinite series

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