Still overwhelmed by exam stress? You've come to the right place!

We know exam season has you totally swamped. To support your studies, access Gold Membership for FREE until December 31, 2025! Normally £29.99/month. Just Log In to activate – no strings attached.

Let us help you ace your exams efficiently!

Questions
Questions

251A-STATS-10-LEC-1 Quiz #5- Requires Respondus LockDown Browser

Single choice

Consider two pairs of grandparents. The first pair has 4 grandchildren and the second pair has 31 grandchildren. Which of the two pairs is more likely to have between​ 40% and​ 60% boys as​ grandchildren, assuming that boys and girls are equally likely as​ children? Why?

Options
A.The first pair is more likely to have between​ 40% and​ 60% boys because it is likely they have exactly​ 50% boys which is equal to the theoretical value.
B.The first pair is more likely to have between​ 40% and​ 60% boys because the second pair are having so many grandchildren it is less likely that they will have between​ 40% and​ 60% boys in accordance with the Law of Large Numbers.
C.The second pair is more likely to have between​ 40% and​ 60% boys because the Law of Large Numbers suggests that the larger the number of​ repetitions, the closer the empirical probability of an event is likely to be to the true theoretical probability.
D.Both pairs of grandparents are equally likely to have between​ 40% and​ 60% boys according to the Law of Large Numbers.
View Explanation

View Explanation

Standard Answer
Please login to view
Approach Analysis
We’re considering two families of grandparents and comparing the probability that the share of boys among their grandchildren falls between 40% and 60%, assuming equal chance of boy or girl. Option 1: The first pair is more likely to have between 40% and 60% boys because it is likely they have exactly 50% boys which is equal to the theoretical value. - This statement mixes up what is meant by “more likely.” For a small sample (4 grandchildren), having exactly 2 boys (which is 50%) is possible, but it is not the most probable outcome within the 40–60% range simply because 50% is just one specific outcome among several. In fact, the probability of exactly 2 boys out of 4 is C(4,2)/2^4 = 6/16 = 0.375 (37.5%). The range 40......Login to view full explanation

Log in for full answers

We've collected over 50,000 authentic exam questions and detailed explanations from around the globe. Log in now and get instant access to the answers!

Similar Questions

More Practical Tools for International Students

To make preparation and study season easier for more international students, we've decided to open up Gold Membership for a limited-time free trial until December 31, 2025!