According to Alexander Bird, why was pre-scientific medicine particularly susceptible to bias? (Check BOTH that apply)

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According to Alexander Bird, why was pre-scientific medicine particularly susceptible to bias? (Check BOTH that apply)

BlackTom AI · Accepted Answer

To approach this question, I’ll evaluate each statement in light of Alexander Bird’s analysis of pre-scientific medicine and its susceptibility to bias.
Option 1: 'Medicine was largely based on the authority of central texts from thinkers like Galen, and it wasn't empirical/experimental.' This is consistent with Bird’s critique of pre-scientific medicine, where reliance on authoritative authorities and textual tradition outweighed systematic empirical testing, making bias more likely.
Option 2: 'Because it was only practiced in certain regions and had not yet become globalized.' While historical practice was uneven geographically, Bird’s argument about bias centers on authority and lack of empirical methods rather than globalization or regional spread, so this claim does not capture the core source of bias he identifies.
Option 3: 'Because it was practiced primarily by white men who demonstrated bias against against women and people of color.' Although modern discussions of bias emphasize practitioners and social determinants, Bird’s analysis of pre-scientific medicine’s bias does not hinge on demographic profiling of practitioners as described here; the statement attributes bias to a demographic factor in a way Bird doesn’t explicitly frame as the primary mechanism, making it an inaccurate characterization of his core argument.
Option 4: 'Counterexamples to physicians' predictions were often explained away as being the result of the natural variation in physiology and pathology.' This aligns with Bird’s observation that inconsistent or contradictory outcomes were frequently dismissed as mere natural variation, rather than prompting methodological or evidentiary revision, illustrating how bias persisted.
In summary, the two statements that reflect Bird’s critique of pre-scientific medicine are options 1 and 4, while options 2 and 3 do not accurately capture the mechanisms Bird identifies for why bias was so pronounced in that era.

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According to Alexander Bird, why was pre-scientific medicine particularly susceptible to bias? (Check BOTH that apply)

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