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A zero-coupon, four-year corporate bond with a par value of $1,000. Assume that the risk-neutral marginal probability of default for the bond is 1.6%, the recovery rate is 30%, and the default-free spot rate curve is flat at 3%. What is the present value (PV) of the expected loss under the risk-neutral probability at the end of first year? (Round to 4 decimal places.)
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First, restate the given data for clarity: a four-year zero-coupon corporate bond with par value 1000, risk-neutral probability of default in year 1 is 1.6%, recovery rate is 30%, and the default-free spot rate is flat at 3%. We are asked to find the present va......Login to view full explanationLog in for full answers
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